Originally Posted by Vash02
It's because hispanics are a subset of whites?
It's like saying "I'm not white, I'm White-Irish!" (yes thats a racial distinction, at least in Britain).
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No it's not. The US government and census makes a very clear distinction between the two. I dare you to go to a prison in CA and tell a hispanic inmate he is white.
But biologically, yes, you are right. But my point still stands of why we call someone who is 50% black or even 10% black a black person, but not the other way around.